9.12 - Practice Questions Set 1

Module: Type III Low-Pressure Appliances
Format: 25-question closed-book EPA 608-style Type III practice set
Regulatory basis: Module 9 material verified through August 13, 2026
Purpose: Provide one complete Type III practice attempt covering all major low-pressure appliance examination areas with an emphasis on core facts and direct service decisions.

Instructions

Select the one best answer for each question.

Read every choice before answering. Pay particular attention to words such as not, most, best, before, after, maximum, absolute, and required.

Complete this set without notes or the answer file if you are using it as a readiness check.

These are original EPA 608-style practice questions developed from Module 9 content and exam-style topic patterns. They are not actual, leaked, or official EPA or certifying-provider examination questions.

Question 1

Under the current Section 608 definition, which refrigerant pressure condition identifies a low-pressure appliance?

A. Liquid-phase saturation pressure below 45 psia at 104°F

B. Liquid-phase saturation pressure above 355 psia at 104°F

C. Any appliance operating below 0 psig at any time

D. Any centrifugal chiller containing more than 200 lb of refrigerant

Question 2

What is the primary purpose of the purge unit on a low-pressure centrifugal chiller?

A. Raise chilled-water pressure

B. Remove noncondensable gases while minimizing refrigerant loss

C. Meter liquid refrigerant into the evaporator

D. Replace the recovery machine during service

Question 3

A low-pressure chiller is operating below atmospheric pressure and develops a refrigerant-side leak. What is most likely to occur at the leak?

A. Only liquid refrigerant can leave the system

B. Condenser water must leak into the refrigerant circuit

C. Air and moisture can be drawn into the chiller

D. The purge unit automatically seals the leak

Question 4

Why can noncondensable gases in a low-pressure chiller cause abnormally high condenser pressure?

A. They increase the refrigerant’s latent heat to an unlimited value

B. They lower the condenser-water temperature

C. They convert the refrigerant to a solid

D. They add their partial pressure and interfere with normal condensation

Question 5

When a charged low-pressure centrifugal chiller must be pressurized for leak detection, which method should normally be tried first?

A. Controlled hot water or an approved heating/pressurization method

B. Oxygen through the charging valve

C. Compressed air through the purge connection

D. Unregulated nitrogen until the relief device opens

Question 6

For Type III exam preparation, what is the maximum pressure that should not be exceeded when pressurizing a low-pressure chiller for leak testing?

A. 0 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 5 psig

D. 15 psig

Question 7

What is the traditional Type III procedure for checking a water box for a refrigerant leak?

A. Pressurize the water box with oxygen

B. Fill the water box with refrigerant

C. Drain the water and place the detector probe through the drain opening

D. Operate the chiller compressor with the water box open

Question 8

When recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller and accessible bulk liquid is available, what should be recovered first?

A. Noncondensables

B. Oil

C. Water from the condenser

D. Bulk liquid refrigerant

Question 9

What is the traditional Type III high-pressure cutout value for a recovery unit used on a low-pressure chiller?

A. 10 psig

B. 5 psig

C. 15 psig

D. 25 psig

Question 10

What is the purpose of the condenser in a self-contained recovery machine used for a low-pressure chiller?

A. Cool the building chilled-water loop

B. Reject heat from compressed recovered refrigerant so it can condense

C. Separate water from the chiller oil

D. Raise the chiller evaporator pressure for leak testing

Question 11

During normal refrigerant evacuation of a low-pressure chiller, why must water be circulated or removed?

A. To increase ozone-depletion potential

B. To keep refrigerant from entering the recovery vessel

C. To prevent water from freezing as refrigerant pressure and saturation temperature fall

D. To make the purge unit discharge more refrigerant

Question 12

A tube leak is suspected before recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller. What should be done with the evaporator and condenser water sides under the Type III exam procedure?

A. Increase their pressure to the maximum pump head

B. Add nitrogen to both water boxes

C. Keep both pumps running regardless of the leak

D. Drain them before refrigerant recovery

Question 13

To minimize refrigerant release when removing oil from a low-pressure chiller, what oil temperature is a current Type III examination point?

A. 130°F

B. 85°F

C. 100°F

D. 115°F

Question 14

For an oil change under current §82.156, the appliance or isolated portion may be opened after it has been evacuated or pressurized to no higher than:

A. 0 psig

B. 5 psig

C. 10 psig

D. 15 psig

Question 15

Through which connection should a centrifugal chiller be charged for the Type III examination?

A. Condenser-water drain

B. Purge discharge line

C. Evaporator charging valve

D. Rupture-disc outlet

Question 16

Why is refrigerant vapor introduced before liquid when recharging a deeply evacuated low-pressure chiller?

A. To eliminate the need for evacuation

B. To force noncondensables into the condenser water

C. To lower the chiller pressure farther before liquid charging

D. To raise pressure and saturation temperature and reduce tube-freezing risk

Question 17

A technician is preparing a normal low-pressure appliance for opening. Which Table 1 endpoint must be reached?

A. 25 mm Hg absolute

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 18

How does the normal low-pressure evacuation requirement change when recovery/recycling equipment was manufactured before November 15, 1993 rather than on or after that date?

A. It changes from 25 mm Hg absolute to 4 in. Hg vacuum

B. It does not change; both columns require 25 mm Hg absolute

C. It changes only when the appliance charge is below 200 lb

D. It depends on the chiller manufacture date

Question 19

After a low-pressure chiller reaches the required recovery vacuum, the technician waits a few minutes and the pressure rises. Which condition should be considered first in Type III recovery reasoning?

A. The refrigerant has been reclaimed automatically

B. The recovery vessel is necessarily empty

C. Remaining liquid refrigerant or refrigerant coming out of the oil

D. The chiller is ready to open without further evaluation

Question 20

Which service operation meets the current definition of major maintenance, service, or repair?

A. Replacing an external nameplate

B. Tightening a water-box support bolt

C. Replacing insulation on a water line

D. Removing the evaporator from the appliance

Question 21

A low-pressure appliance qualifies for the current non-major opening provision in §82.156(a)(1). Before opening, it must be pressurized to:

A. No higher than 0 psig

B. Exactly 5 psig

C. Exactly 10 psig

D. 25 mm Hg gauge pressure

Question 22

A leak prevents a low-pressure component from reaching the prescribed Table 1 level without substantially contaminating recovered refrigerant. After isolation where possible, how far must the leaking component be evacuated?

A. Only until the recovery machine first starts

B. To the lowest attainable level without substantial contamination, not above 0 psig

C. To exactly 5 psig

D. No evacuation is required once a leak is confirmed

Question 23

Which statement about a rupture disc used for refrigeration pressure protection is correct?

A. It is a normal pressure regulator that cycles open and closed

B. It should be blocked during nitrogen testing

C. It is a non-reclosing emergency overpressure device

D. Every low-pressure chiller rupture disc is rated at 15 psig

Question 24

Which pairing is correct for machinery-room atmospheric safety?

A. A refrigerant monitor measures chiller pressure; an oxygen monitor measures water pressure

B. An oxygen monitor replaces all refrigerant detection requirements

C. A refrigerant monitor proves the room is safe whenever it reads zero

D. A refrigerant monitor measures refrigerant in room air; an oxygen monitor measures oxygen, with less than 19.5% O₂ considered oxygen deficient

Question 25

A condenser water pump has been shut off before a water-box cover is removed. What should the technician assume?

A. Stored or static water pressure can remain and must be isolated, relieved, and verified before opening

B. The water side is automatically at zero pressure

C. The cover bolts may be loosened to release any trapped pressure

D. The refrigerant side should be pressurized to 15 psig before opening the cover

Score

Score: _____ / 25

Readiness target: 22 / 25

Detailed answers and explanations for all three Type III practice sets will be provided in 9.15 - Answers and Explanations.md.